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Suppose we have a real function $f(x)$ which is differentiable everywhere, except possibly at $x=2$.

If $\lim_{x\to2^-}f^\prime(x)=\lim_{x\to2^+}f^\prime(x)$, is that enough to conclude that $f(x)$ is differentiable at $x=2$. The 'tangent slopes' are equal on the left and the right.

I believe the answer is no, it's not enough to guarantee differentiability at $x=2$, right?

However, if we add in the condition that $f(x)$ is continuous everywhere, including $x=2$, then are the above limits enough to guarantee differentiability at $x=2?$

I believe that if we add in the continuity assumption at $x=2$, then checking the left/right limits of $f^\prime(x)$ is enough to guarantee $f(x)$ is differentiable at $x=2$. But why? How is the continuity of $f(x)$ related to the continuity of $f^\prime(x)?$

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Consider the function $f:\mathbb{R}\to\mathbb{R}$ which is defined by $f(x)=0$ for $x<2$ and $f(x)=1$ for $x\geq 2$. This is an explicit example of a function which is differentiable away from $2$, and the limits of slopes agree, but it is not differentiable at $2$.

Generally speaking, since being differentiable at a point implies being continuous at that point, continuity is a necessary condition for being differentiable. On the other hand, there are functions which are everywhere differentiable but whose derivative is not continuous, a concrete example is $x^2\sin(1/x)$.

Finally, if $f$ is continuous, and differentiable away from 2, and the limits of derivatives agree, then $f$ is also differentiable at $2$, and its derivative is the limit of $f'$ at $2$.

Edit: Okay I thought I had a prove, but it relies on the assumption that $f'$ is continious in a neighborhood of $2$. Then you can consider $g(x)=\int_2^xf'(t)dt+f(2)$, which is differentiable by the fundamental theorem of calculus. But one has $f=g$: first of all $f(2)=g(2)$ by definition. For $x>2$ we have $f(x)=\lim_{\epsilon\to 0^+}\int_{2+\epsilon}^xf'(t)dt+f(2+\epsilon)=\int_2^xf'(t)dt+f(2)=g(x)$, analog for $x<2$.

Edit 2: One can weaken the assumptions a bit, one only needs $f'$ be integrable in a suitable sense, Riemann works, and maybe even Lebesgue suffices.

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  • $\begingroup$ Thanks very much. Your first example isn't continuous though, so doesn't really address my second question. But it does answer the first question, as you've shown that limits of derivates agreeing isn't sufficient for differentiability. Why is your last sentence true? $\endgroup$
    – user162520
    Oct 27, 2020 at 14:13
  • $\begingroup$ @user162520 I have to apologize, I was mistaken. I was only able to come up with a prove in a special case, see my edited answer. $\endgroup$
    – Leonard
    Oct 27, 2020 at 21:22

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