Metrizable Topological Space In Many Ways Prove that if a topological space $(X, T)$ is metrizable then it is metrizable in infinitely many ways.
$$$$As the given topological space is metrizable so there exists a metric $d$ on the set $X$ such that the it can generate a class of open subsets which is the topology $T$. Now as we know that whenever $d$ is a metric on $X$, then the function satisfying $$d'(x, y)=\frac{d(x, y)}{1+d(x, y)}$$, is also a metric on $X$. Now suppose $A$ be an open subset of $X$ under the metric $d$. Now chose a $x \in A$, then there exists some $\epsilon$ such that for all $y$ satisfying $$d(x, y) < \epsilon$$ lie in $A$. Now for the metric $d'$ we see that $\frac{\epsilon}{1+\epsilon}$ works and for all $y$ satisfying $$d'(x, y) < \frac{\epsilon}{1+\epsilon}$$ satisfy the above equation and hence lie in the set $A$ and hence $A$ is also open under the metric $d'$. So the class of open sets generated by the metric $d$ can also be generated by the metric $d'$ and hence $d'$ can also induce the topology $T$. Similarly we can find infinitely many metric like $d''$ satisfying $$d''(x, y)=\frac{d'(x, y)}{1+d'(x, y)}$$. And hence the topological space $(X, T)$ is metrizable in many ways.
$$$$Is the proof Correct??
 A: The statement is false: a set with a single element admits one and only one metric.
If we assume that $X$ has more than one element, then, although your proof works, I think that it is simpler to say that, if $d$ is a metric on $X$, then, for each $k>0$, $kd$ is another metric on $X$ which induces the same topology.
A: You proved that open sets in $d$ are open in $d'$. But you also have to prove the converse. For this you just have to replace $\frac {\epsilon} {1+\epsilon}$ by $\frac {\epsilon} {1-\epsilon}$ in your argument (taking $\epsilon <1)$. Except for this your construction of the metrics is  is fine.
A: The idea is fine, but you really should include an actual demonstration that if $d'(x,y)<\frac{\epsilon}{1+\epsilon}$, then $d(x,y)<\epsilon$ and hence $y\in A$. If
$$d'(x,y)=\frac{d(x,y)}{1+d(x,y)}<\frac{\epsilon}{1+\epsilon}\,,$$
then
$$(1+\epsilon)d(x,y)<\epsilon\big(1+d(x,y)\big)\,,$$
so
$$d(x,y)+\epsilon d(x,y)<\epsilon+\epsilon d(x,y)\,,$$
and hence $d(x,y)<\epsilon$.
More important, you also need to show that $d$-open sets are $d'$-open. If we let $\epsilon'=\frac{\epsilon}{1+\epsilon}$, we can solve for $\epsilon$ to find that $\epsilon=\frac{\epsilon'}{1-\epsilon'}$, a fact that should suggest how to do this.
There is, however, an easier way to get infinitely many different equivalent metrics. (It does require that $X$ have at least two points, but so does any approach.) Let $x$ and $y$ be two distinct points of $X$, and let $r=d(x,y)$. For each $s\in(0,r)$ define a metric $d_s$ on $X$ by setting $$d_s(u,v)=\min\{d(u,v),s\}$$ for all $u,v\in X$. It’s easy to verify that $d_s$ and $d$ generate the same topology, since they have the same open balls of all radii less than $s$, and they are clearly distinct, because $d_s(x,y)=s$ for each $s\in(0,r)$.
