I have the following statement to prove or disprove:
Let $v$ a vector of vectorial space $V$ different of $0_{\text{V}}$ and $S= \{s_k\}_{k=1}^n$ a subset of $V$ and $v \in span(V)$ prove ir disprove that:
The linear combination of $S$ that forms $v$ have unique scalars $\iff$ $S$ is linearly independent
My attempt was:
First, prove the $\impliedby$ direction:
If a vector $v \neq 0_v$ can be written as a linear combination of a linearly independent subset $S$ of a vectorial subspace $V$ with some scalars $\{\alpha_k\}_{k=1}^n$ implies that these scalars are unique.
Proof: If $v$ can be written as a linear combination of a linearly independent subset $S=\{s_k\}_ {k=1}^n$ this will be: $v=\alpha_1s_1+...+a_ns_n$.
Suppose scalars are not unique, so we also have: $v=\beta_1s_1 + ...+\beta_ns_n$
Equating $\alpha_1s_1+...+a_ns_n=\beta_1s_1 + ...+\beta_ns_n \implies (\alpha_1-\beta_1)s_1+(\alpha_n+\beta_n)s_n=0$ and since $S$ is linearly independent $\alpha_k-\beta_k=0 \iff a_k = b_k$ for every $k \in [1, n]$.
Second, disprove the $\implies$ direction:
Let $S= \{s_k\}_{k=1}^n$ and since $v$ is a linear combination of $S$ with unique scalars $\{\alpha_k\}_{k=1}^n$ we have:
$v=\alpha_1s_1+\alpha_2s_2 + ... + \alpha_ns_n$ for unique $a_k$.
Suppose $S$ is linearly dependent.This will implies that we have at least some vector $s_k$ in $span(S - \{s_k\})$, w.l.o.g lets say $s_k$ is $s_1$ so we have $s_1 = \beta_2s_2 + ... +\beta_ns_n$
And rewriting $v$ as $v = \alpha_1(\beta_2s_2 + ... +\beta_ns_n) + \alpha_2s_2 + ... + \alpha_ns_n= 0\cdot s_1 + (\alpha_1\beta_2 + \alpha_2)s_2 + ... + (\alpha_1\beta_n+\alpha_n)s_n$
and since scalar are unique we have that $\alpha_1 = 0$ and $\alpha_1\beta_k=0$ for every $k$, and since $\alpha_1$ is $0$ it holds for every $\beta_k \in \mathbb{R}$ and therefore the $\implies$ direction is false. This can be interpreted as: If we have unique scalars doesn't not means that is linearly independent because we can set all scalars of the "repeated"(that can be written as linear combination of the others) vectors of a linearly dependent set to $zero$ and the scalars will be unique.
Is my proof correct?