We were introduced to the monotone class theorem which stated that (in my own understanding) the minimal sigma field generated by the field $\mathcal{C}$ (denoted $\sigma[\mathcal{C}]$) equals to the minimal monotone class generated by that same field $\mathcal{C}$(denoted $\mathcal{M[C]}$). i.e. $$m[C]=\sigma[C] \ \ \ \text{when } C \text{ is a field}$$
I was introduced to this theorem by the textbook Probability for Statisticians 2nd edition by Galen R.Shorack first. I was able to follow the proof in the textbook by checking all the statements are true, but I didn't quite get the idea behind the proof. I revisited the concept and the proof today using the Youtube source: https://youtu.be/4XhMgu_ekeY?t=606.
I find myself confused with the notation of the proof: I think if $E\subset \mathcal{M[Q]}$ (In this series of video, $ \mathcal{Q}$ is an algebra), then $E$ must be a class of sets. However, in $g(E)=\{F\in\mathcal{M[Q]}:E\backslash F,E\cap F,F\backslash E \in\ \mathcal{M(Q)}\}$ the symbol $E$ seems to represent the element of class, which is set. Also, in the claim, $E\in\mathcal{Q}$ also suggests $E$ is an element in the class.
The lecturer constructs $g(E)$ and show it contains $Q$ and is a monotone class. It seems to me This step means for any given $E\in \mathcal{M(Q)}$, by the function $g$, we will get a corresponding class of sets $g(E)$ which is a monotone class. Does that mean we are mapping a set to a class of set? In fact, in the textbook that I used for studying, the notation is introduced as: For each $A \in \mathcal{M}, \operatorname{let} \mathcal{M}_{A} \equiv\left\{B \in \mathcal{M}: A B, A^{c} B, A B^{c} \in \mathcal{M}\right\} .$ And we were shown that $\mathcal{M}_{A}$ is a monotone class. It didn't occur to me we can think of the construction as some sort of function.
There are many proofs in the textbook involving constructing a set of this kind and prove the constructed sets satisfies the certain property. Whenever I checked the properties of the set as stated, those properties always hold as if by magic. I fancy by thinking those constructions as function may be insightful and illuminating but I lack the mathematical background to make my mind clearer. I apologize for the lengthy explanation of my confusion which may be something very basic and simple. Could someone please explain to me how to think the proof from the perspective of a function and explain the intuition behind the proof? If any fundamental concepts (for example, in topology, functional analysis, set theory) were needed to better understand the idea behind the proof I am more than happy the direction could be pointed.