As for the second question, this is really just me wondering on definitions. For a function $f:\mathbb{R}\to\mathbb{R}$ define
$$\limsup_{x\to+\infty}f(x):=\lim_{x\to+\infty}\sup_{z\geq x}f(x).$$
Just like the sequence definition. If you want to instead send the argument to $-\infty$ it seems it should look like
$$\limsup_{y\to-\infty}f(y):=\lim_{y\to-\infty}\sup_{w\leq y}f(w).$$
However, I can't seem to find anywhere that does this. Has anyone encountered this before?
Regarding the nested $\limsup$'s, with the above definition and $f:\mathbb{R}^2\to\mathbb{R}$, would it follow that
$$\limsup_{x\to+\infty}\limsup_{y\to-\infty}f(x,y)=\limsup_{y\to-\infty}\limsup_{x\to+\infty}f(x,y)?$$
The only way I can think to do this is breaking it into cases, whether the $\limsup$'s are finite or not, then using $\varepsilon$'s and $\delta's$'s and the like, but when we write out, for the left side, the limit then the supremum then the next limit then the next supremum I get tangled up. In particular (finite case), for a fixed $y$ call inner supremum $L_y$. Then for all $\varepsilon>0$ there exists some $z_{y,\varepsilon}$ so that $|f(y,z_{y,\varepsilon})-L_y|<\varepsilon$ and $z_{y,\varepsilon}\leq y$. But at this point I don't see to send $y$ to $-\infty$, so to speak.
Thanks in advance.