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I don't understand why if $u\in W_0^{1,2}$ I can represent $u$ as $$u(x)=-\frac{1}{2\pi}\int_{B_1(0)}\Delta u(y)\log|x-y|dy$$

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  • $\begingroup$ This "question" is not a question. $\endgroup$
    – Umberto P.
    Commented Oct 11, 2020 at 21:51
  • $\begingroup$ Thank you Umberto $\endgroup$
    – mathmagic
    Commented Oct 11, 2020 at 22:00
  • $\begingroup$ @mathmagic I'll follow this question, (I will repeat some Sobelev-spaces until tomorrow, and when I'm done with my work I can try again to answer) It's a interesting topic; this one. //Have a continuing pleasant day! $\endgroup$
    – William Martens
    Commented Oct 11, 2020 at 22:13

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