I've seen some definitions of a Normalizer that do not seem equivalent to me and was wondering if I am missing something.
First to setup the basic stuff:
$H$ is a subgroup of $G$.
Denote the normalizer of $H$ as $N(H)$.
So now the different definitions:
Group 1:
- $N(H)=\{a \in G: aha^{-1} \in H \text{ for }\forall h \in H\}$
- $N(H)=\{a \in G: aHa^{-1} \subseteq H\}$
Group 2:
- $N(H)=\{a \in G: aH=Ha\}$
- $N(H)=\{a \in G: aHa^{-1}=H\}$
- $N(H)=\cup\{Ha : aH=Ha\}$
- $N(H)=\cup\{Ha : aHa^{-1}=H\}$
My conclusions so far:
- The solutions in Group 1 are equivalent
- The solutions in Group 2 are equivalent
- The solutions in Group 1 are not equivalent to those in Group 2 in general.
- Group 1 basically says to gather all elements for which the conjugate of H is a subgroup of H, while Group 2 says to gather all the elements for which the conjugate of H is equvalent to H.
- If G is finite, Group 1 will be equivalent to Group 2, because $aHa^{-1}$ is a bijective image of $H$ so if $H$ is finite and $aHa^{-1} \subseteq H$ => $aHa^{-1}=H$.
- So Group 1 and Group 2 are equivalent if G is finite.
So my question comes to this:
Is this correct or not?
\text{ for every }
to get regular text in the middle of a math formula; otherwise, it comes out awful. $\endgroup$