Given $\log^2(n)=\sum_{dd'|n}\Lambda(d)\Lambda(d')+\sum_{d|n}\Lambda(d)\log d$, it has been written (in the article "A discussion of the fundamental ideas behind Selberg’s “Elementary proof of the prime-number theorem” bySteve Balady, page 9) that,
Letting $c = dd'$ and replacing $d$ with $c$ in the second sum, $$\log^2(n)=\sum_{c|n}(\sum_{d|n}\Lambda(d)\Lambda(\frac c d)+\Lambda(c)\log c)$$ Now, applying $(4.1)$ to this sum with respect to $c$, we conclude that $$\sum_{c|n}\mu(c)\log^2(\frac n c)=\sum_{d|n}\Lambda(d)\Lambda(\frac n d)+\Lambda(n)\log n).$$
Here, $(4.1)$ tells $\sum_{d|n}\mu(d) = 1 $ if $n=1$, otherwise the sum is $0$.
QUESTION:
How we get $$\sum_{c|n}\mu(c)\log^2(\frac n c)=\sum_{d|n}\Lambda(d)\Lambda(\frac n d)+\Lambda(n)\log n)$$ from $$\log^2(n)=\sum_{c|n}(\sum_{d|n}\Lambda(d)\Lambda(\frac c d)+\Lambda(c)\log c)$$?
ATTEMPT:
If we replace $n$ by $\frac n c$
$$\log^2(\frac n c)=\sum_{c|\frac n c}(\sum_{d|\frac n c}\Lambda(d)\Lambda(\frac c d)+\Lambda(c)\log c) \cdots (1)$$
, then multiply by $\mu(c)$, we get,
$$\mu(c) \log^2(\frac n c)=\mu(c)\sum_{c|\frac n c}(\sum_{d|\frac n c}\Lambda(d)\Lambda(\frac c d)+\Lambda(c)\log c) \cdots (2)$$
$$=\sum_{c|\frac n c}\mu(c)(\sum_{d|\frac n c}\Lambda(d)\Lambda(\frac c d)+\Lambda(c)\log c)$$
, then we sum up -
$$\sum_{c|n}\mu(c) \log^2(\frac n c)=\sum_{c|n}\sum_{c|\frac n c} \mu(c) (\sum_{d|\frac n c}\Lambda(d)\Lambda(\frac c d)+\Lambda(c)\log c)\cdots (3)$$
But I have no idea how $\sum_{c|n}\sum_{c|\frac n c} \mu(c) (\sum_{d|\frac n c}\Lambda(d)\Lambda(\frac c d)+\Lambda(c)\log c)$ becomes $\sum_{d|n}\Lambda(d)\Lambda(\frac n d)+\Lambda(n)\log n)$.
EDIT:
Note that Mobius inversion formula directly gives the result but the author refers to a different way (multiply by $\mu(c)$, then sum up), I would like to see how that derivation is obtained.