Revision:
So, given $\log_b x = y$, I want to solve for b in terms of $x$ and $y$. This logarithmic equation is equivalent to $b^y=x$, $b=\sqrt[y] x$. Logarithm can also be rewritten as:
$\log_b x = \frac{\log_{10}x}{\log_{10}b}=y$. Solving for $\log_{10}b$ gives $\log_{10}b=\frac{\log_{10}x}{y}$. Now I can exponentiate (with base 10) both sides to get $b=10^\frac{\log_{10}x}{y}$.
I got this thanks to Dave L. Ranfro in comments.
I have function to calculate logarithm with any base, but I cannot get logarithm base $b$ on my system because there is no function to exponentiate when the exponent is rational or irrational number. I have to calculate this otherwise. I need such algorithm. Can it be some sort of Taylor series approximation?
On my ACS scripting system I'm capable to calculate logarithm. So the equation $\frac{\log_{10}x}{y}$ will be calculated to some real number. Lets mark it $k$: $\frac{\log_{10}x}{y}=k$. And now my logarithm base $b$ becomes short, good looking equation which can be found by any calculator: $b = 10^k, k \in\Bbb R$. I cannot calculate it. Lets try Taylor series. Help me with this. I need to get a number with 6 digits after comma.
$f(k)=10^k, k \in\Bbb R $.
$$
\sum_{n=0}^\infty f^{(n)}(k_0)\frac{(k-k_0)^n}{n!}
$$
$$
f(k)=f(a)+\frac{f'(a)}{1!}(k-a)+\frac{f''(a)}{2!}(k-a)^2+\frac{f'''(a)}{3!}(k-a)^3+\cdots.
$$
Ok, lets take my example from top when $x=175, y=\frac{\sqrt{2}}{2}$
$k=\frac{\log_{10}175}{\frac{\sqrt{2}}{2}}\approx 3,1721348293710402712145339574314$, and:
$b=10^k\approx 1 486,3970316880181727541497029745$
I need to get this using Taylor series. But I'm not sure how to start.
Perhaps I need to choose such number $a$ that makes $f(a)$ easy to compute. Since my $k$ number is irrational (or maybe rational) and have some digits after comma, so I am going to take only integer part. In my case it will be $3$:
$a=3, f(a)=10^3=1000$.
$f(k)=10^k,\quad f'(k)=\ln 10\cdot 10^k,\quad f''(k)=(\ln 10\cdot 10^k)'=(\ln 10)^2\cdot 10^k, \\ f'''(k)=((\ln 10)^2\cdot 10^k)'= (\ln 10)^3\cdot 10^k.$
$f(k)=10^k\approx 10^3+\frac{\ln 10\cdot 10^3}{1!}(k-3)+\frac{(\ln 10)^2\cdot 10^3}{2!}(k-3)^2+\frac{(\ln 10)^3\cdot 10^3}{3!}(k-3)^3 \approx 1 485,2814946439140703778969615533$
Looks like I got something similar. But I'm still not sure whether I did it correctly. I need math professional approval. What do you think? Maybe.. Do I need fourth derivative to be this even more correct?