In the books that I have seen, given a smooth map $\phi: M \rightarrow N$ where $N$ and $M$ are manifolds, the differential at a point $x$ is defined as $d \phi_x: T_x M \rightarrow T_x N$. Why is it the case that the differential is defined as a map of the tangent spaces?
Is it possible to show that this is true taking, for example, the definition of the tangent space of $M$ at $x$ to be $(dF_x)^{-1}(0)$ if $M=F^{-1}(0)$?
For example, the problem I am working on treats $SO(n, \mathbb{R})$ as a manifold of $M(n, \mathbb{R})$. Given $w_1, \ldots w_n \in SO(n, \mathbb{R})$ I define the function
\begin{align} \varphi: SO(n, \mathbb{R}) &\rightarrow SO(n, \mathbb{R})\\ g & \mapsto gw_1g^{-1}w_1^{-1} \ldots g w_n g^{-1}w_n^{-1} \end{align}
I need to show that $d \varphi_I$ (where $I$ is the identity matrix) is a map from $SO(n, \mathbb{R})$ to itself where $SO(n, \mathbb{R})$ is the set of anti-symmetric matrices and is the tangent space of $SO(n, \mathbb{R})$ at $I$.
Thanks in advance.