I'm currently working through J. Lee's "Intro to Smooth Manifolds", this is problem 7-22c. It asks the reader to show that $\langle p,q\rangle=\frac{1}{2}(p^*q+q^*p)$ defines an inner product on $\mathbb{H}$. It is trivial to verify that this is linear in the first argument, and satifies conjugate symmetry. However, I think I have misunderstood something. Because $\mathbb{H}$ is a 4-dimensional algebra over $\mathbb{R}$, as stated in the text, so I thought the inner product would have to take values in $\mathbb{R}$.
When verifying the non-degeneracy, I realised that, if $p=(a,b)$ with $a,b\in\mathbb{C}$ (this is the way quaternions are defined in the text), we get $\langle p,p\rangle=(|a|^2+|b|^2,0)$.
Since this does not technically take its values in $\mathbb{R}$, is this really an inner product? It is clearly true that $\langle p,p\rangle=0$ iff $p=0$, and $|a|^2+|b|^2\geq 0$, so we could just consider the first entry of this resulting value of $\langle p,p\rangle$, as the second is always zero, but this doesn't seem quite right to me. What am I missing here?