I am trying to prove the Inverse Function Theorem in a version different of the classical, for strongly differentiable functions, whose definition is:
Definition: A function $f:U \rightarrow \mathbb{R}^n$, $U$ is a open of $\mathbb{R^m}$, is said strongly differentiable in $a \in U$ if there exists a linear transformation $T: \mathbb{R}^m \rightarrow \mathbb{R}^n$ such that $$f(x) - f(y) = T \cdot (x-y) + r_a(x,y)|x-y|,$$ for all $x,y \in U$ and such that $\displaystyle \lim_{(x,y) \rightarrow (a,a)} r_a(x,y) = 0$.
The classic version of Theorem proves the differentiability of the homeomorphism inverse. In this context I need to prove the strong differentiability of the homeomorphism inverse, ie, the next lemma:
Lemma: Let $f:U \rightarrow V$ it is a homeomorphism, where $U$ and $V$ are open of the $\mathbb{R}^m$. If $f$ is strongly differentiable in $a \in U$ and $f'(a): \mathbb{R}^m \rightarrow \mathbb{R}^m$ is a isomorphism, then $f^{-1}$ is strongly differentiable in $b = f(a)$.
In my reference, the author presents a lemma to prove this result, but I think it is more direct, like the classic version, but I am unable to prove it.
What does this concept of "strongly differentiable"? Was it as if he were going to prove the theorem on a point?
Thank you for your help.