I've to prove that the functional $$\langle f,g\rangle = \int_{a}^{b} \int_{a}^{b} \frac{\sin(\pi(t-s))}{\pi (t-s)} f(s) \overline{g(t)}dsdt$$ is an inner product on $\mathcal{C}[a,b]$ (complex continuous functions).
I've already made a similar exercise where I shown that $$\int_{a}^{b} f(t) \overline{g(t)} dt$$ is an inner product. And most of the properties follow the same reason. But I can't see how $$\langle f,f\rangle = \int_{a}^{b} \int_{a}^{b} \frac{\sin(\pi(t-s))}{\pi (t-s)} f(s) \overline{f(t)}dsdt = 0 \iff f \equiv 0.$$ The implication $f=0 \Longrightarrow \langle f,f\rangle=0$ is clear from of the definition of the functional, but since $\frac{\sin(\pi(t-s))}{\pi (t-s)} = 0$ for $\pi(t-s) = n\pi$ I can't get the other implication. Same with $\langle f,f\rangle \geq 0.$