I have been reading up about the homomorphism between $SO^+(2,1)$ (i.e. the proper-orthochronus Lorentz group in 2+1 dimensions), and $SL(2,\mathbb{R})$. As part of this, I was further introduced to the symplectic group $Sp(2,\mathbb{R})$, and this is where my confusion arises. From what I've read, it is claimed that $Sp(2,\mathbb{R})$ and $SL(2,\mathbb{R})$ are isomorphic, i.e. $Sp(2,\mathbb{R})\cong SL(2,\mathbb{R})$, however, as fair as I can tell, from their group structures, they seem to be not just isomorphic, but identical. By this, I mean that the isomorphism between them seems to be trivial.
Am I missing something here, or is it just a quirk of the $n=2$ case, that the two groups are trivially related?
If I am correct, then they essentially seem to be the same group in this case (rather than there existing a one-to-one mapping between them), and so why do people even distinguish them?
If I am incorrect, can someone please enlighten me, and also detail the actual isomorphism?
To caveat this question, I am approaching this from a physicist's perspective, so apologies for any lack of mathematical rigour, and/or discrepancies in notation/conventions.