Is the group of translations on a spherical topology tied to the group of rotations of that sphere?
More concretely, suppose we define some set of orthonormal basis $e^{i}$ where i runs from 1 to n on a sphere $S^{n}$ (yes, I realize n=1, 3, and 7 are the only parellizable cases).
For example suppose we consider $S^{3}$, we can then translate some point (consider perhaps a vector) around on the three-sphere. However, we could have just rotated the sphere itself and achieved the same thing. Now I get that this all seems rather evident but I'm interested in something a bit more. We can say that the principle bundle of (oriented now) orthonormal frames is $P_{OF}(S^{3})=S^{3}\times SO(4)$ (which is a trivial bundle). Due to a special isomorphism we know $S^{3}=SU(2)$, so we have $P_{OF}(S^{3})=SU(2)\times SO(4)$.
Back to our orthonormal basis, each $e^{i}$ can be chosen to identify with a generator of the Lie algebra $su(2)$. Of course the lie algebra of $su(2)$ is the same as that of $so(3)$ (the former being the double cover of the latter).
Contrast this with the topology $\mathbb{R}^{3}$, whose principle oriented orthonormal frame bundle is $P_{OF}(\mathbb{R}^{3})=\mathbb{R}^{3}\times SO(3)$. In this latter case, the two (frame translations and rotations) are entirely divorced from one another, yet in the former a translation on the three sphere is representable by rotations of the three-sphere. I find myself wondering if the two are “soldered” in some fashion? It seems like a translation on the surface of the sphere is equivalent to a rotation in the fiber of the frame bundle of that sphere. For instance, if we consider the 1-forms dual to our basis, we call these the soldering forms. Are these then tied to our rotations in the fibers? Put another way, are the horizontal and vertical sub-bundles tied to one another? can someone please elaborate?