When we are discussing simple linear regression with: $$Y_i = \beta_0 + X_i\beta_1 +u_i$$
$\hat\beta_0$ and $\hat\beta_1$ are estimates of this model using OLS.
With a simple proof we get $E(\hat\beta_0) = \beta_0$ and $E(\hat\beta_1) = \beta_1$, thus proving $\hat\beta_0$ and $\hat\beta_1$ are unbiased of $\beta_0$ and $\beta_1$.
My question is whether this is true the other way around: Are $\beta_0$ and $\beta_1$ unbiased estimators of $\hat\beta_0$ and $\hat\beta_1$?