I read that if we take $f: \mathbb{R} \to (0, +\infty)$, such that for all $a \in \mathbb{R}$, $x \mapsto e^{ax}f(x)$ is convex then $f$ is log-convex (meaning $\log \circ f$ is convex).
I did try to prove it, but I couldn't get to the result.
However, I also read that if for all $a \in \mathbb{R}$, $x \mapsto e^{ax}f(x)$ is convex then $x \mapsto (f(x))^{a}$ is convex for all $a > 0$. I couldn't find a proof either ... But I managed to prove that if this last condition is verified, then $f$ is log convex.
Therefore could you please help me prove one of these two statements (either the first one, which is in fact the result I want in the end, or the second one, which could lead me to the first result) ?
Thank you.