This is a statement that appears in the text of D. J. H. Garling's book A Course in Galois Theory (page 30) without proof. I am trying to understand why it is true.
Assume that $R$ is an integral domain, and that $B$ is a non-empty subset of $R$. An element $a\in R$ is called a greatest common divisor of $B$ if $a$ is a common divisor of every element in $B$, and is divisible by every common divisor of all the elements in $B$. Assume that $a$ is the greatest common divisor of $B$, and define $$C=\{c\in{R}:ca\in B\}.$$ Prove that the greatest common divisor of $C$ is equal to $1$.
Here is what I have so far. Since $a$ is a greatest common divisor of $B$, it follows that $B\subset (a)$ where $(a)$ is the ideal generated by $a$. If $d$ is the greatest common divisor of $C$, then since every element of $B$ is a multiple of $a$, $d$ must be a common divisor of $B$, and must therefore divide $a$. If I can prove that there exists $c\in R$ that is prime to $a$ such that $ca\in R$, then I could conclude that $d$ must be a common divisor of two coprime elements and must therefore be equal to $1$. I haven't used the fact that $R$ is an integral domain so far. Wondering whether this helps me find such an element $c$, such that $c$ and $a$ are coprime and $ca\in B$.