Let me first say I'm better at physics than math and have big gaps in my understanding of Riemannian geometry. I do a lot better with intuitive explanations than identities and so forth.
I've been contemplating the idea of a Lorentzian manifold whose curvature is inherently wave-like; it could be described by the d'Alambert equation of the Riemann or Ricci tensor:
$$\Box R_{\mu\nu\sigma\rho} = 0$$
because the d'Alambertian is the wave operator, as we can see when we write it in an inertial frame:
$$\left(-\frac{1}{c^2}\frac{\partial^2}{\partial t^2} + \frac{\partial^2}{\partial x^2} + \frac{\partial^2}{\partial z^2} + \frac{\partial^2}{\partial z^2}\right)R_{\mu\nu\sigma\rho} = 0.$$
Since the d'Alambertian is the generalization of the Laplacian, I would think that would also describe "harmonic curvature". But apparently harmonic curvature is given by the divergence, not the Laplacian:
$$\nabla^iR_{ijkl} = 0$$
Why is this so?
And the other thing is, when people describe flow of curvature, instead of the wave equation they use Ricci flow, which says the curvature determines how the metric changes:
$$\frac{\partial g_t}{\partial t} = -2\operatorname{Ric}_{g_t}$$
Now this apparently has soliton solutions, so I guess it's somehow a wave equation, but as I understand it was introduced more in the spirit of a diffusion equation, and I don't see why it should be preferable to the wave equation for the curvature tensor. Nor can I follow DeTurck's paper that supposedly generalizes Ricci flow to more than 3 dimensions, and even then is it really covariant?
Sorry if that's two questions in one post but it really boils down to: why is the Laplace equation of the curvature tensor apparently not studied, and these other equations are studied instead? Any insight would be appreciated!