My attempt. I used the identity $\arctan(\alpha)\pm\arctan(\beta)=\arctan\left(\frac{\alpha\pm \beta}{1\mp \alpha\beta}\right)$ to rewrite $\arctan\left(\frac{x}{1+x^2}\right)$ as a sum of two $\arctan$'s, but I found that it did not help much with the sketch. Then I have been stuck until now. Any hint would be appreciated. Thank you!
Remark.
In case that someone wants to sketch some similar but more challenging function, the last part of the original question is to sketch $h(x)$ where $\tan(h(x))=\frac {x}{1-x^2}$, $-\infty\lt x\lt\infty$, and $h(0)=\pi$.
Last, this problem has been solved, but any new approach is always welcome. Thanks!