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Suppose that we have the expression $$ xr_n(x)=b_nr_{n+1}(x)+a_nr_n(x)+b_{n-1}r_{n-1}(x),\quad n\geq 0 $$ where $a_n\in \mathbb{R}$, $b_n>0$ for $n\geq 0$ and $b_{-1}=1$, with the initial conditions $r_0(x)=1$ and $r_{-1}(x)=0$.

From here, I can see that $r_n$ is a (real) polynomial of degree $n$ (by induction). Then, we can write $r_n(x)=\sum_{k=0}^nc_{k,n}x^k$ for some coefficients $c_{k,n}$. How can one deduce from the expression above that $$ c_{n,n}=1/(b_0b_1\dots b_{n-1})? $$

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Use induction. Notice that $\deg a_n r_n(x) \leq n$ and $\deg b_{n-1}r_{n-1}(x) \leq n-1$ (building on your result that $r_n(x)$ has degree $n$). So when looking at coefficient of $x^{n+1}$ in the recurrence expression, the only terms left are $xr_n(x)$ and $b_nr_{n+1}(x)$. The coefficient of $x^{n+1}$ in $xr_n(x)$ is the coefficient of $x^n$ in $r_n(x)$, which by induction hypothesis is $1/(b_0b_1\dots b_{n-1})$. This must be equal to coefficient of $x^{n+1}$ in $b_nr_{n+1}(x)$, and hence coefficient of $x^{n+1}$ in $r_{n+1}(x)$ is $(1/(b_0b_1\dots b_{n-1}))/b_n=1/(b_0b_1\dots b_{n})$, which was to be proven.

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    $\begingroup$ Thanks for your answer. Took me time to understand your process (wordings aren't my strong point). One can do a slightly different way: by comparing the coefficients $xr_n$ and $b_nr_{n+1}$, we get $c_{n,n}=b_nc_{n+1,n+1}$, so $c_{n+1,n+1}=\frac{1}{b_n}c_{n,n}$. Then use induction to get the conclusion, where $c_{0,0}=r_0=1$. $\endgroup$
    – James2020
    Commented Aug 23, 2020 at 21:36

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