I need to find the inverse Laplace transform of $$F(s) = \frac{s}{(s+1)^3}$$ using Bromwich Integral. The Bromwich contour will look something like this.
Actually you can see this problem on the following link: https://youtu.be/cXjbPsc-Z5w. I would like to know, why should we show the integral along $L_u$, $C_R$, $L_D$ is $0$? I mean, i've seen many examples on some books (such Mathematical Methods for Physicists, 3rd ed.) it's just need to show the residue at simple poles for solving the inversion of laplace transform
So, in this case it should be:
$$\begin{align} \mathcal{L}\bigg\{\frac{s}{(s+1)^3}\bigg\} &= \frac{1}{2\pi i}\int_{\gamma - i\infty}^{\gamma + i\infty} \frac{se^{st}}{(s+1)^3} \Bbb ds \\ &= \mathrm{Res}_{s=-1} \left(\frac{se^{st}}{(s+1)^3}\right) \\ &= \frac 12 \lim_{s=-1} \frac{\Bbb d^2}{\Bbb ds^2} \left[(s+1)^3 \frac{se^{st}}{(s+1)^3}\right]\\ &= \frac 12 \lim_{s=-1} te^{st}(2+st)\\ &= te^{-t} \left(1-\frac t2\right) \end{align}$$
Can you explain why should we show the integral along $L_u$, $C_R$, $L_D$ is $0$ (based on the given link) if the residue theory is enough to evaluate the integral to find the inverse laplace transform of $F(s)$?
Hope you can explain to me. I want to learn more about this but still confuse when it comes to this question. Many thanks!