I want to solve the following problem but I can't put all the tools together properly:
My attempt:
We consider the sets $$A_n \equiv \{E\left(1-\exp(-g) \right) : g \in \text{conv}(f_j : j \ge n) \}$$
and define $s_n \equiv \sup(A_n)$. Noting that $g \ge 0 \quad \forall g \in \text{conv}(f_j : j \ge n)$, $1-\exp(-g) \in [0,1]$ so that $\{s_n\}_{n \in \mathbb{N}}$ is a bounded, decreasing sequence (as $A_{n+1} \subseteq A_n$) and so has a limit $s = \inf_n s_n$.
By definition of the supremum $s_n$, there exist $g_n \in \text{conv}(f_j : j \ge n)$ such that $$s_n - \frac{1}{n} \leq E(1- \exp(-g_n)) \leq s_n $$
The idea is to show that $g_n$ converges in $L^1$, which would be shown if it were Cauchy in $L^1$, or even if it converged in probability (since $|g_n| \leq K$, we have a uniformly integrable family so that convergence in probability implies $L^1$ convergence). I do not know how to do this. Any ideas?
Some of my (maybe useless ones): We clearly have $E( 1- \exp(-g_n)) \rightarrow s$, and if we could show that $1-\exp(-g_n)$ is Cauchy in measure (or $L^1$) then we would have $1-\exp(-g_{n})$ converges to a limit $X$ in probability, which would imply that $g_{n}$ converges to $-\log(1-X)$ in probability by the continuous mapping theorem and then we would be done.