I have read quite a number of the questions on stack exchange to try to understand the relationships/differences between syntactic consequence, semantic consequence, and material implication.
For example in this post: https://philosophy.stackexchange.com/questions/10785/semantic-vs-syntactic-consequence, the definition of semantic consequence is given as Γ ⊨ φ says: sentence φ is true in all models of Γ. A similar definition is given here: https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/365569/whats-the-difference-between-syntactic-consequence-⊢-and-semantic-consequence-⊨. In particular that we have to have the entailed sentence be 'true'.
From this I am wondering does 'truth' in the definition of semantic consequence require the use of syntactic consequence? That is, do we first need the notion of syntactic entailment in order to define this semantic consequence?