I wanted to prove as much as I could about the rate of divergence of the harmonic series without resorting to textbooks; I did this by checking a little computationally and using that as motivation for the next bit. It wasn't very hard to prove the following
$$ \sum_{n=1}^N \frac{1}{n} = \log N + \gamma + O\Big(\frac{1}{N}\Big). $$
I then wanted an estimate for the implied constant above, and extensive computations showed that for all $N \in \mathbb{N}$,
$$ N\bigg( \sum_{n=1}^N \frac{1}{n} - \log N - \gamma\bigg) < \frac{1}{2} \qquad\qquad\qquad (1) $$
although this quantity does converge to $\frac{1}{2}$ from below (I plotted this sequence up to $N=10^{200}$ or so). This suggests that $C=\frac{1}{2}$ is the best implied constant we can get. Now, Example 2.1.10 here seems to imply
$$ N\bigg( \sum_{n=1}^N \frac{1}{n} - \log N - \gamma\bigg) > \frac{1}{2}, \qquad\qquad\qquad (2) $$
at least for all $N$ large enough.
Question: I am confused -- why is there an apparent contradiction in (1) and (2)?
(If you are not convinced by equation (1) I'd encourage you to try as many values of $N$ until you are convinced, or otherwise find me an integer value such that it does not hold.)