I am reading a book about differential geometry that introduces an operator $i$, called the "interior product," that takes vectors and produces something that can act on 1-forms. Their rules are, $$ i\left(\frac{\partial}{\partial x_i}\right)\mathrm{dx_j} = \delta_{ij} $$ and, $$ i\left(\frac{\partial}{\partial x_i}\right)f = 0 $$ Now, the second rule is unique, and is definitely not what the vector $\partial/\partial x$ would do normally. Still, I don't understand why the first one should apply. Vectors are already dual to one-forms, so why do we need a map $i$ that takes vectors to something that can act on one-forms?
This is especially bothersome to me, because interior products usually allow you to measure vectors against other vectors in the same space. I am not sure how to interpret these laws, which apparently describe an "inner product" between spaces that already have a bilinear function to be dual under!