Let $X\subseteq \mathbb P^N$ be a smooth variety and $p$ a general point $\mathbb P^N\setminus X$. Consider the map $$\pi:X\to \mathbb P^{N-1}$$
as the restriction of linear projection $\mathbb P^N\setminus \{p\}\to \mathbb P^{N-1}$. Then $\pi$ is a finite morphism (proper and quasi-finite) onto its image. Let's assume $\dim X\le N-2$, in other words, $\pi(X)$ is not the whole space, then is $\pi:X\to \pi(X)$ a birational map?
Edited: As KReiser pointed it out, it is an exercise in Hartshorne (which I didn't realize), and the standard proof is to show $X$ and $\pi(X)$ have the same function field using the standard tool in commutative algebra. There are already complete solutions linked in KReiser's comment.
However, as a complex geometer, I'm used to thinking this problem geometrically, for example, I can relax the condition to $X\subset \mathbb C^N$ an analytic subvariety and ask if a generic linear projection is bimeromorphic. In other words, to me this problem is equivalent to show that for a generic point $q\in \pi(X)$, the line through $\overline{pq}$ intersect $X$ at only one point. Is there a geometric proof of this fact?