Here's a theorem:
If $x = 2$ and $y = 3$, then $x + y = 5$.
So: can I now say that if $x+y = 5$, then $x = 2$ and $y = 3$? Of course not. The converse of a theorem (the assertion that the conclusion implies the hypotheses) is a separate statement that may or may not be true. In the event that it is is true, it requires separate proof.
You have a theorem that says "if isosceles , then conditions 1 and 2 hold"; you apparently want to claim "so if conditions 1 and 2 hold, the triangle must be isosceles." That's exactly analogous to my $2 + 3 = 5$ theorem.
To answer the larger question you jumped to in the comments, "How big a leap is allowed?", the answer is "It depends on context." If Pythagoras and Aristotle are chatting, Pythagoras can probably skip a few steps, with Aristotle nodding to indicate "Sure...I can see how you'd prove that, so let's go one..." When Coxeter starts writing chapter 1 of his textbook, he has to be very thorough; by chapter 5, some proofs skip steps that he expects the reader can now fill in. But the underlying standard is always the same: if challenged, the speaker should be able to go through every step of the proof.
When you're a student in a first geometry course, and your teacher says "no, the converse of that statement isn't something we've proved; if you want to use it, you'll have to PROVE it to me," and you say "Well, isn't it completely obvious?", you've failed to meet that underlying standard. There's very little in the geometry of triangles that isn't "sorta obvious", until at some point you prove something and say, "Wait! THAT's true? That CAN'T be true! How can I have never noticed that odd thing about triangles?" ... and just about then, it gets exciting.