Let $A\in \mathbb{R}^{n\times n}$ such that $A^2=0$. How could we show that $\operatorname{rank}(A)\leq\displaystyle\frac{n}{2}$?
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$\begingroup$ $rank(A) = dim(Im(A))$, then $rank(A) + dim(Ker(A)) = n$ and $A^2=0$ implies $Im(A)$ is included in $Ker(A)$. Then... $\endgroup$– DamienCommented Jun 19, 2020 at 12:40
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$\begingroup$ Does this answer your question? If $A$ is an $n \times n$ matrix and $ A^2 = 0$, then $\text{rank}(A)\le n/2$. $\endgroup$– StubbornAtomCommented May 12, 2022 at 8:27
2 Answers
$rank(A)=dim(Im(A))$, then
$$rank(A)+dim(Ker A)=n$$
$A^2=0$ implies $Im(A) \subset Ker A$ and then $rank(A) \le dim(Ker A)$
Then
$$rank(A) \le \frac{n}{2}$$
We consider the operator $L_A$ on $\mathbb{R}^n$ defined by, for any $x=(x_1,\dots,x_n)^t\in \mathbb{R}^n, L_A(x)=Ax$. Then we have $\operatorname{rank}(L_A)= \operatorname{rank}(A)$.
Now, $A^2=0\Rightarrow {L_A}^2=0$, which gives
$\operatorname{Im}(L_A)\subseteq \operatorname{Ker}(L_A)$
$\Rightarrow \dim(\operatorname{Im}(L_A))\leq \dim(\operatorname{Ker}(L_A)).$
That is, $\operatorname{rank}(L_A)\leq \operatorname{Nullity}(L_A)\dots$ (1)
From Rank-Nullity theorem we have,
$n=\operatorname{rank}(L_A)+\operatorname{Nullity}(L_A)$. Then using (1) we get,
$\Rightarrow n\geq 2\times \operatorname{rank}(L_A).$
$\Rightarrow n/2\geq \operatorname{rank}(L_A)=\operatorname{rank}(A)$.