I'm sure everyone already thought about this at least one time. Why matrix multiplication is not defined the way showed below?
$$\left( \begin{array}{ccc} a_{11} & a_{12} & \ldots \\ a_{21} & a_{22} & \ldots \\ \vdots & \vdots & \ddots \end{array} \right) \cdot \left( \begin{array}{ccc} b_{11} & b_{12} & \ldots \\ b_{21} & b_{22} & \ldots \\ \vdots & \vdots & \ddots \end{array} \right) = \left( \begin{array}{ccc} a_{11}\cdot b_{11} & a_{12}\cdot b_{12} & \ldots \\ a_{21}\cdot b_{21} & a_{22}\cdot b_{22} & \ldots \\ \vdots & \vdots & \ddots \end{array} \right) $$
I know this definition has it's limitations. The product only works with same order matrix and any matrix with some zero entry won't be invertible. But this definition is associative, commutative, has identity element, the distributive works, is simpler and more intuitive.
I have no problem about the classic definition, but this definition also has good properties, why it is never used?