Let $X$ be a Bernoulli random variable with parameter $p$, $X_t$ be defined as follows: $$X_t =\begin{cases} \cos(\pi \cdot t) &\text{if}\quad X=0 \\ \sin(\pi \cdot t) &\text{if}\quad X=1 \end {cases} $$
Is the probability distribution of $X_t$ given by $f(t) = p\cdot \cos(\pi \cdot t) + (1-p) \cdot \sin(\pi \cdot t)$?
It looks like it but I'm not really sure, any help and explanation would be great, thank you. Also with it how can I calculate it's expected value, do I just integrate $x\cdot f$ over $\mathbb{R}$?