Let a,b $\in$ $\mathbb{Z}$. Obviously, a counterexample can disprove this statement.
I tried this approach to seek another method (possibly proof by contradiction):


If $gcd(a,(b-1)!)=1$, then $a|b$ and hence: $a \le b$.
But I think claiming that $a|b$ is too restrictive because $a$ can be less than $b$ without having $a|b$ necessarily.

I tried to study two cases to reach a contradiction that $gcd(a,(b-1)!)\not=1$, yet I couldn't figure out how to continue so this might actually help out :
1) $a=b$
2) $a \lt b$

Is there any mistake that I have done? Is this proof inconclusive or are there any improvements to be made so that it is a valid proof?
Thank you in advance
EDIT: Counterexamples most certainly get the job done here. Though, I am seeking another method to disprove the statement.
EDIT 2: The original proposition is: $$a \le b \Rightarrow b! \equiv 0 \pmod a$$
I am trying to justify whether the converse of this statement is right or wrong, which is obviously wrong using counterexamples. The purpose is to find another method to disprove the converse.

  • $\begingroup$ Without further restrictions this is false big time, for exmple: $\;-7=0\pmod 7\;$ , yet $\;-7<7\;$ ...This is specially important as we usually work within $\;\Bbb Z\;$ when doing this kind of problems... $\endgroup$
    – DonAntonio
    Jun 8, 2020 at 10:58
  • $\begingroup$ Please refrain from making minor edits. Also, please take a look at the description of the tag proof-writing before adding it. $\endgroup$
    – Ѕааԁ
    Jun 13, 2020 at 14:37
  • $\begingroup$ Thank you for the note. The tag wiki states that:" I have written the following proof, could I somehow improve it, does it have good flow/can I improve readability? ", and i think my question was kind of similar $\endgroup$ Jun 13, 2020 at 14:53

2 Answers 2


I think there's no point to try and prove a false statement. Because $15|5!$ for example.

What is a true version of this statement is $$a|b! \implies \text{prime factors of }a \le b$$ You can try and prove this!

Update: I understood you seek to prove it without using counterexamples, so let's try:

Let $p$ and $q$ be prime numbers where $p > q$, we have $pq|p!$ while $pq >p$

Another update: in your solution of "disproving the statement" you suggested that $\gcd(a,(b-1)!)=1$ while $a \le b$. Well if $a<b$ we have $a|(b-1)!$ so this directly means $a=b$ and this is something you wouldn't want as a step in disproving the statement. So the thing you'd first try is finding $a>b$ and $a|b!$, and I've given that in my first update.

  • $\begingroup$ You are right that it is pointless, but I am trying to disprove it without using counterexamples. Appreciate your recommendation though! $\endgroup$ Jun 8, 2020 at 11:32
  • $\begingroup$ @OmarS Oh, I didn't notice. I will try and edit and answer for that $\endgroup$ Jun 8, 2020 at 11:36
  • $\begingroup$ @OmarS Is that ok? I think disproving a theorem doesn't require formality and cases and stuff like that. It just requires a case at which the statement doesn't work. It does work for some integers but not for all, I suggest you look closely and explain clearly what exactly you need from such a problem/proof $\endgroup$ Jun 8, 2020 at 11:39
  • $\begingroup$ Perhaps you are right, i should have included what i needed exactly. I will edit the post and thank you for the head's up! $\endgroup$ Jun 8, 2020 at 12:55
  • $\begingroup$ The second update is exactly what i needed. $a > b$ to be exact. I will work on it and post an updated answer. Thank you for your efforts $\endgroup$ Jun 8, 2020 at 15:55

$b = 5$ and $a = 6$ is a counterexample.

The statement is true, however, if $a$ is further assumed to be prime.

Note that $b!$ has as factors, all natural numbers $\le b$. If $a$ is prime and $a > b$, then $a$ cannot divide $b!$ since $a$ is a prime factor of $a$ that won't divide $b!$.

If $a$ is not prime, then it is possible for all of its prime factors (with appropriate multiplicities) to be factors of $b!$ even if $b < a$, as shown above.


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