Showing that the set of all finite subsets of $\mathbb{N}$ is a countable set. I'm working through Understanding Analysis by Abbott and was wondering about the correctness of my solution to a problem in section 1.4. Exercise 1.4.10 asks:

Show that the set of all finite subsets of $\mathbb{N}$ is a countable set.

So my idea for a solution is to use induction. The base case is simple, with each element of $\mathbb{N}$ mapping to a singleton of itself. Clearly we have a bijection and thus all the subsets of size 1 are countable. From here we assume that the set of all finite subsets of $\mathbb{N}$ of size $k-1$ is a countable set. Let $\{B_1, B_2, B_3, B_4, \dots \}$ be an enumeration of the subsets of size $k-1$ of $\mathbb{N}$. For a given $i \in \mathbb{N}$, the family $\{B_k \cup \{i\} : k \in \mathbb{N}\}$ is similarly countable. The family on subsets of $\mathbb{N}$ of size $k$ can then be written as the union
$$\bigcup_{i=1}^\infty{\left\{B_k \cup \{i\} : k \in \mathbb{N}\right\}}.$$
This is a countable union of countable families of sets and is thus countable. So, the set of all subsets of $\mathbb{N}$ of size $k$ is countable and thus by induction this statement holds true for all $n \in \mathbb{N}$.
Now let $A_i$ be the family of subsets of $\mathbb{N}$ of size $i$. By above each of these families is countable. Thus
$$\bigcup_{i=1}^\infty{A_i}$$
is the set of all finite subsets of $\mathbb{N}$ and since it is a countable union of countable families of sets our result follows.
Is this a valid proof? The only thing I'm a little unsure of is writing the family of subsets of size $k$ as I do in that first union. Any other comments are welcome as well.
 A: With the minor correction made in your comment (the family of $k$-subsets is contained in the union you wrote; it's not equal to that union, because the union contains some $(k-1)$-subsets as well), your proof is correct.  I would probably write it in a way that makes no use of enumerations of the countable sets involved... other answers show that there are very clean ways to prove the countability of $\cal{P}(\mathbb{N})$ specifically, so it's nice for you to have a slightly more abstract approach:

Thm: If $X$ is a countable set, then so is ${\cal{P}}(X)$.

Proof (OP):
Let $A_k(X)$ be the set of $k$-subsets of $X$.   We will show that $A_k(X)$ is countable for each $k$, by induction.  Clearly $A_0(X)=\{\emptyset\}$ is countable.  For $k\ge 1$, assume $A_{k-1}(X)$ is countable.  We have
$$
A_{k}(X)=\bigcup_{x\in X}\bigcup_{Y\in A_{k-1}(X) : x\notin Y}\{Y\cup\{x\}\}.
$$
This is a countable union (since $X$ is countable) of countable unions (since $A_{k-1}(X)$ is countable by hypothesis) of finite sets; hence it is a countable union of countable sets; hence it is countable.  By induction, then, $A_k(X)$ is countable for all $k$.  We conclude that $${\cal{P}}(X)=\bigcup_{k=0}^{\infty}A_k(X)$$
is also a countable union of countable sets, and hence countable.
$\;\square$
A: First order the prime numbers: let $p_1=2$ and let $p_n$ be the nth prime starting from 2. Now let $X \subset \Bbb N$ be finite. Assume that $X = \{x_1,\dots,x_n\}$ and $x_i < x_{i+1}$ for $1\leq i \leq n-1$. If $\mathfrak{P}(\Bbb N)$ denotes the collection of finite subsets of $\Bbb N$, then let $\psi:\mathfrak{P}(\Bbb N) \to \Bbb N$ be a function which is defined by 
\begin{equation}
\psi(X) = \prod_{i=1}^{n}p_i^{x_1}
\end{equation}
By the fundamental theorem of arithmetic, $\psi$ is one-one. This shows that $\mathfrak{P}(\Bbb N)$ is countable.
A: Let $n \in \mathbb{N}$ and $b_m b_{m-1}\ldots b_2 b_1 b_0$ be its expansion in binary. There are technically an infinite number of $0$'s to the left of the expansion, so it makes sense to talk about bits $b_r$, for $r > m$.
The binary expansion of a number provides a natural way to talk about the subsets of $\mathbb{N}$. Each bit is either $1$ or $0$, and each element of $\mathbb{N}$ is either in or not in a given subset. 
For $n$ as described above with a binary expansion $b_m b_{m-1}\ldots b_2 b_1 b_0$, construct the subset of $\mathbb{N}$ specified by $\{a \in \mathbb{N} \vert b_{a-1} = 1\}$. This subset is finite since $n$ is finite, and therefore has a finite binary expansion. Moreover, since binary expansions are unique, no two natural numbers can specify the same subset of $\mathbb{N}$. Every subset of $\mathbb{N}$ can be associated with a unique binary expansion (and consequently, a unique natural number), showing that this construction is bijective.
Since $\mathbb{N}$ is countable and the set of finite subsets is bijective to $\mathbb{N}$, this set is also countable.
