Haagerup tensor product $\otimes_{\rm h}$ is both injective and projective.
Pisier, Gilles, Introduction to operator space theory, London Mathematical Society Lecture Note Series 294. Cambridge: Cambridge University Press (ISBN 0-521-81165-1/pbk). vii, 478 p. (2003). ZBL1093.46001.
Can the following be true?
Let $q_i : E_i \rightarrow F_i$ be complete quotient maps of operator spaces. Then \begin{equation} {\rm Ker} \, q_1 \otimes_{\rm h} q_2 = {\rm Ker} \, q_1 \otimes_{\rm h} E_2 + E_1 \otimes_{\rm h} {\rm Ker} \, q_2. \end{equation}
I have some hints which tilt me towards believing it is true. Denote by U the operator space on the right. Then $U \subset {\rm Ker} \, q_1 \otimes_{\rm h} q_2$. Then the product map drops to a map on $(E_1 \otimes_{\rm h} E_2)/U$ and we need to prove that this map is injective. As for the algebraic tensor product, one finds an inverse map from $F_1 \otimes_{\rm h} F_2 \simeq E_1/{\rm Ker}\, q_1 \otimes_{\rm h} E_2/{\rm Ker} \, q_2$ to $(E_1 \otimes_{\rm h} E_2)/U$. For this one starts from the bilinear map: $(\hat e_1,\hat e_2) \mapsto \widehat{e_1 \otimes e_2}$, where the hats are the obvious classes. It is well defined and completely bounded. Hence it defines a linear map on the Haagerup product. Then one checks that it is the inverse map we looked for.
I am hesitant because this implies $(E \otimes_{\rm h} F)/(G \otimes_{\rm h} F) \simeq (E/G) \otimes_{\rm h} F$ for any sub-space $G$ of $E$.