I am reading the book "Z. Semadeni, Banach Spaces of Continuous Functions". At Definition 3.6.11, he defines a generic notion of convergence as follows:
By "upward filtering ordered sets" he means a "directed set", so his notion of net is the usual one.
Imediatelly I noticed that some requirements are missing in order to obtain some basic properties on convergent nets in topological spaces, such as:
(a) If a net is convergent then any of its subnet is convergent and they have the same set of limit points;
(b) If two convergent nets coincide in a cofinal subset of its index set, then they have at least one limit point in common;
among others. So, surely, I though: not every convergence of this kind is given by a topology. However, his comment on the almost everywhere convergence of the Lebesgue measure (highlighted in red) intrigued me, since this kind of convergence satisfies properties (a), (b) and some other properties of nets in vector topological spaces. So, here are my questions:
(1) Why is the almost everywhere convergence on the Lebesgue measure not given by any topology?
(2) Are there some sufficient conditions which guarantees that a kind of convergence is given by a topology?