It' not a physics question, just ..coincidence ;) (i'm concerned about mathematical rightness of it)
Let's consider $U,T,S,P,V\in\mathbb{R_{>0}}$ such that $$dU=TdS-PdV$$
- Based on this, how we can rigorously proof that $U=U(S,V)$?
Attempt 1: (probably inconclusive, see 'Attempt 2')
Let us consider $$A, X, Y \in \mathbb{R}\;\;\mid\;\; A=A(X,Y)\;\;\;\wedge\;\;\; dA=dU$$
Then $$dA=\frac{\partial A}{\partial X}\bigg|_Y\,dX+\frac{\partial A}{\partial Y}\bigg|_X\,dY$$ Requirement $dA=dU$ implies $$\frac{\partial A}{\partial X}\bigg|_Y\,dX+\frac{\partial A}{\partial Y}\bigg|_X\,dY=TdS-PdV$$ or $$\frac{\partial A}{\partial X}\bigg|_Y\,dX+\frac{\partial A}{\partial Y}\bigg|_X\,dY-TdS+PdV=0$$ Now, since $dX, dY, dS$ and $dV$ are arbitrary, to make the sum null, what they multiply must be zero, and since $T,P$ are not null by definition, only possibilities are that $$X=S\;\wedge\;Y=V \qquad\text{or}\qquad Y=S\;\wedge\;X=V$$ in either case, we obtain $$\frac{\partial A}{\partial S}\bigg|_V=T,\qquad\frac{\partial A}{\partial V}\bigg|_S=-P$$ (I've considered $A$ being just function of two variables $X,Y$, but this is not restrictive since if more than two variables were present in $A$ dependencies, the result woudn't change, as the additional partial derivatives appearing in $dA$ expansion would have been necessarily set to $0$, eliminating thus their dependency in $A$)
Also follows that
$$A=A(S, V)$$
Then, being $dA=dU\,[..]\Rightarrow\,U=U(S,V)$
Some question about this attempt
- How to properly carry on last step, if all was correct so far? (simply saying that $A$ and $U$ differ by a constant as a consequence to mean value theorem? but how we can say this if still we don't know $U$ dependencies..?)
- Has sense to look for $A$ such that $dA=dU$ if $A$ initially is not function of the same variables as $U$?
- Seems that to make the above reasoning work, $X$ and $Y$ have to be independent one with respect to the other, but what if we cannot require this for $S$ and $V$?
Attempt 2: (als inconclusive see 'Attempt 3')
From $dU=TdS-PdV$, we have $$\frac{dU}{dS}=T-P\,\frac{dV}{dS}\qquad\text{and}\qquad\frac{dU}{dV}=T\,\frac{dS}{dV}-P$$ Then $$\frac{dU}{dS}\bigg|_{V}=\Bigg(T-P\,\frac{dV}{dS}\bigg)\Bigg|_{V}=T\qquad\text{and}\qquad\frac{dU}{dV}\bigg|_{S}=\Bigg(T\,\frac{dS}{dV}-P\bigg)\Bigg|_{S}=P$$ Eventually $$dU=\frac{dU}{dS}\bigg|_{V}\,dS+\frac{dU}{dV}\bigg|_{S}\,dV$$
But here arises the problem, if i were sure that $U$ would just depend on $S,\,V$, we could have written (you can check wikipedia page on this) $$dU=\frac{\partial U}{\partial S}\,dS+\frac{\partial U}{\partial V}\,dV$$ and maybe arrive to the conclusion $U=U(S,V)$ in some way, but being the reasoning 'circular' we cannot do so..
So also this way seems inconclusive.. i wrote it in the hope of maybe clicking some ideas in the answerer, thanks!
Attempt 3: posted in answer