I was trying to solve this exercise in my course notes, but the statement didn't seem right to me. When looking at the ring $\mathbb{Z}/4\mathbb{Z}$, it is clearly not a field since $2 + \mathbb{Z}$ does not have an inverse. But the set $\mathbb{Z}/4\mathbb{Z}$ , which is $\{0+ \mathbb{Z};1+ \mathbb{Z};2+ \mathbb{Z};3+ \mathbb{Z}\}$ is finite, and we could easily define a Euclidean degree function on it with a finite value set ( by letting $δ(1) = δ(3) = 1$ , $δ(2) = 2$ and $δ(0) = -\infty$).
So this is a ring that is not a field with a Euclidean degree function on it with a finite value set. I'm I wrong or does the ring have to be infinite or none of the previous ?
Also would the contraposition of the statement be : $δ(R)$ finite $\Rightarrow$ $R$ a field ?
Thanks in advance.