Product sigma algebra of Borel sigma algebra and Power set. Let $([0,1],\mathcal{B},m)$ be the Borel sigma algebra with lebesgue measure and $([0,1],\mathcal{P},\mu)$ be the power set with counting measure. Consider the product $\sigma$-algebra on $[0,1]^2$ and product measure $m \times \mu$.
(1) Is $D=\{(x,x)\in[0,1]^2\}$ measurable?
(2) If so, what is $m \times \mu(D)$?
Edit: The product measure is defined on a rectangle by $m \times \mu(A\times B)=m(A)\mu(B)$ and on general set taking infimum over union of rectangles containing $D$. (Maybe we should use $0 \cdot \infty=0$)
 A: I am assuming that the product measure is the one induced by the product outer measure. (This avoids any issue with ambiguity of definition.)
Any set of the form $B \times A$, with $B$  Borel is measurable ($A$ is arbitrary).
Take the sets $S_n = \{(1,1)\} \cup\left( \cup_{k=0}^{n-1} [\frac{k}{n},\frac{k+1}{n})^2 \right)$. Clearly each $S_n$ is measurable, and hence $D = \cap_{n \ge 0} S_n $ is measurable.
We must have $(m \times \mu) D = \infty$.
To see this, suppose
$D \subset \bigcup_{n \ge 0} B_n \times A_n$, where $B_n$ is Borel, and $A_n$ is arbitrary. Let $D_n = D \cap (B_n \times A_n)$, and let $\pi_x((x,y)) = x$ and similarly $\pi_y((x,y)) = y$. Since $[0,1] \subset \cup_n \pi_x D_n$, we must have $m^* (\pi_x D_{n'} ) >0$ for some $n'$, where $m^*$ is the Lebesgue outer measure (using $m^*$ avoids having to worry about the measurability of $\pi_x D_{n'}$).
Hence $m B_{n'} \ge m^* (\pi_x D_{n'} ) > 0$. In addition, $\pi_x D_{n'}$ must be uncountable (otherwise $m^* (\pi_x D_{n'} ) $ would be zero). Furthermore, $\pi_y D_{n'} = \pi_x D_{n'}$, $\pi_y D_{n'} \subset A_{n'}$, hence $A_{n'}$ is also uncountable. Hence $m(B_{n'}) \mu(A_{n'}) = \infty$, and so $\sum_{n \ge 0} m(B_{n}) \mu(A_{n}) = \infty$ for any cover of $D$ by measurable rectangles. Hence $(m \times \mu) D = (m \times \mu)^* D =\infty$.
A: Since 
$$
\mathcal{B}(\mathbb{R}^2)=\mathcal{B}(\mathbb{R})\otimes \mathcal{B}(\mathbb{R})\subseteq \mathcal{B}(\mathbb{R})\otimes \mathcal{P}
$$
it is enough to show that $D\in\mathcal{B}(\mathbb{R}^2)$. For example you could show that $D$ is closed in $\mathbb{R}^2$.
For the second part: Is $m\times \mu$ even a well-defined measure on $\mathcal{B}\otimes \mathcal{P}$?
The setup I'm used to is the following: Let $(X,\mathcal{E},\mu)$ and $(Y,\mathcal{F},\nu)$ be two $\sigma$-finite measure spaces. Then there exists a unique measure $\pi$ on $(X\times Y,\mathcal{E}\otimes\mathcal{F})$ such that
$$
\pi(A\times B)=\mu(A)\nu(B),\quad A\in\mathcal{E},\,B\in\mathcal{F}.
$$
The measure $\pi$ is called the product-measure and it is explicitly given by the formula
$$
\pi(U)=\int_X\nu(U_x)\,\mu(\mathrm dx)=\int_Y\mu(U^y)\,\nu(\mathrm dy),\quad U\in\mathcal{E}\otimes\mathcal{F},\tag{1}
$$
where $U_x=\{y\in Y\mid (x,y)\in U\}$ and $U^y=\{x\in X\mid (x,y)\in U\}$ are the sections.
Now, $([0,1],\mathcal{P},\mu)$ is clearly not $\sigma$-finite, so I doubt that we can talk about the product measure. My point is that we can't take $(1)$ as the definition of $m\times\mu$ because the two integrals aren't equal.
