Mandatory disclaimer: I'm not a mathematician I'm a physics student.
I am learning about Lie groups and have hit a bit of a wall here. I'm going to specifically be talking about the Lie groups I'm required to know about, $U(1)$, $SO(2)$, $SO(3)$ and $SU(2)$, mostly because I know anything I say will have countless counterexamples and at the moment I'm not worried about anything outside of this scope.
So to my understanding these Lie groups can be defined as a 4-tuple, $(G,\cdot,\tau,\mathscr{A})$, a continuous set of elements, $G$, the group operation, $\cdot$, with all its axioms, and a topology/atlas to give it manifold structure. Now at this point, it seems like all of the Lie groups listed above are completely indistinguishable, we haven't labelled any of the elements of the set, we haven't defined the group operation and we haven't specified the composition of the topology/atlas. My first question is whether this is true, that at the purely abstract level these groups are indistinguishable right now.
I then understand that we define a representation of these groups to be a map from the elements of the Lie group itself to some subset of the general linear group:
$$\pi:G\rightarrow GL(n;\Bbb{C}).$$
It is only at this point that the Lie groups are associated with matrices, this is usually the point at which physics texts pick up the idea of Lie groups, without too much reference to this "representation map", I assume this is why Lie groups are referred to as "the matrix groups" sometimes in physics texts.
It makes sense to me that at this point we can distinguish between the Lie groups, because we make the requirement that the matrices representing, say, $SU(2)$ are unitary and defined over the complex numbers, and the matrices representing $SO(2)$ are orthogonal and defined over the real numbers. I understand that there are multiple different representations for each group, exactly what they are isn't something I'm too concerned about right now. My second question would then be, is the reason that all Lie group representations are not isomorphic to each other because there does not exist a mapping that preserves the group operation? It seems like since these Lie groups all contain a continuous set of elements there could exist a 1-to-1 mapping between them. If this second question requires a significant amount of mathematics it will probably be lost on me but I thought I'd ask.
Any help appreciated.