If $f(n)$ is an arithmetic function with $|f(n)|=1$, and $$\lim_{s\to+1} (s-1)\sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac{f(n)}{n^s}=0$$ Can I deduce that $$\lim_{s\to +1}(s-1)^2\sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac{f(n)\ln(n)}{n^s}=0$$ I tried abel summation but I am still having trouble, I would appreciate some help


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