$\newcommand{\N}{\mathbb{N}}$ $\newcommand{\Z}{\mathbb{Z}}$
Let $E = \{0, 1\}^\Z$, with the usual product topology. Let $A$ be a meagre set of $E$, and let $\mu$ be a measure on $E$ with the following properties:
- $\mu$ has full support.
- $\mu$ is shift-invariant, i.e. if we let $\sigma$ be the shift on $E$, $\sigma((x_i)_{i \in \N}) = (x_{i+1})_{i \in \N}$, then for any $F \subset E, \;\mu(F) = \mu(\sigma(F))$.
Do we have $\mu(A) = 0$ ?
I know that meagre sets need not be of measure $0$ in general, but the usual counterexamples are given for the Lebesgue measure on $\mathbb R$. Is it still true for full-support measures on a Cantor Space ?
If this still does not hold in this setting, are there any "easy" properties that, if satisfied by either $A$ or $\mu$, would ensure that $\mu(A) = 0$ ?