I will give an intuitive answer.
What is a limit point of a seqeuence?
Like for example, we say that the sequence $(\frac{1}{n})_{n=2}^{\infty}$ $\frac{1}{2}, \frac{1}{3},\cdots, \frac{1}{n},\cdots$ converges to a limit $L$ if for all $m\geq 1 ~ \exists M\geq m$ such that for all $n_1 \geq M$, you can guarantee $|{a_n}_1-L| \leq \epsilon$ occurs for all $\epsilon >0$.
But what about the sequence $\frac{1}{2}, 2-\frac{1}{2}, \frac{1}{3}, 2-\frac{1}{3},\cdots$?
You notice that the terms in the odd places converge to $0$ while the ones in the even place converge to $2$. So this sequence is not convergent. Why? Because it doesnt satisfy the definition for convergence, we cannot fix an $M$, because for all(the important thing to note) $n\geq M$ we will not have that either the sequence is $\epsilon$ close to $2$ or $0$ for all $\epsilon$. But you can note that if we can ignore the "for all" condition and replace it with "there exists" things change, because then, we need to show that for all $M$ we can find an $n_2\geq M$ such that it is $\epsilon$ close to either $2$ or $0$. If you make a diagram, you will find the elements of this sequence "cluster/crowd" around the points $0,2$ (due to existence of subsequences of this sequence converging to these limits). This are precisely limit points, and what makes them different from the notion of convergence is that difference in "for all" and "there exist" conditions, as in convergence you know there is only one such point in the real line around which the elements cluster, but the limit points are thus generalised versioons of limits, as there can be more than two such points on the real line, the there exists condition tells you that you can pick one for all $M$(notice that you can vary $M$, suppose you have chosen one element $n_1\geq M$, then you can shift $M \to M+10^{23}$ and still you can find one $n_3\geq M+10^{23}$, because each element of the sequence occurs infinitely many times, this is what the definition wants to mean rather than that of convergence).
Now you can go back to the definition and analyse.
Geometrically, you can now say that $x_0$ is a limit point of a sequence $(a_n)$ as (informally obviousky for intuition)-
If you fix the point $x_0$ in the real line, you can always fix a small(very very small)$\delta$ such that in the region $(x_0-\delta,x_0+\delta)$ you can always find one element $a_k$ of the sequence such that $a_k \in (x_0-\delta,x_0+\delta)$
You might be thinking this is the same as convergence, i would say it is similar, but the major distinction is that it does not say that all the elements in the sequence after $a_k$ need to appear in this interval(unlike convergence), it only says you can always find one, and the reason behind this is that as there can be two different limit points (as in the example $0,2$) thus you need to also have the same phenomenon going about $0$ and $2$ as well, so obviously it is not possible to have all the elements after $a_k$ lying in a small neighborhood around them both, so it is in fact a kind of "generalisation of limits as that in convergence" (reacall that there cannot be two limits of a convergent sequence, and so there is only one limit point and thus the condition that all elements of the sequence after $a_k$ appear in the same neighborhood is okay as there is only one limit point)
Phew! I hope you got the intuition! :) If you still didnt, do tell me! These all writings above are my own intuition of the limit points, and you too should think of them like this because then it will be impossible to forget about them later when you do more sophisticated things in math.