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Analysis With an Introduction to Proof, 4th ed., by Steven R. Lay says the following variation of the sequential criterion for limits of functions:

Let $f:D\to\Bbb R$ and $c$ be an accumulation point of $D$. Then the following are equivalent:
(a) $f$ does not have a limit at $c$.
(b) There exists a sequence $(s_n)$ in $D$ with each $s_n\neq c$ such that $(s_n)$ converges to $c$, but $f(s_n)$ is not convergent in $\Bbb R$.

I would like to know if point (a) applies to one-sided limits. For example, could the sequential criterion for limits of functions be applied to $\lim\limits_{x\to0^+}\cos(1/x)$?

I have a feeling that it applies, but I have not been able to come up with a proof. An answer that provides some sort of justification would be fantastic, but it’s not necessary.

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    $\begingroup$ Choose $D$ as interval starting (or ending) at $c$ and you get the statement for one-sided limits. $\endgroup$
    – Martin R
    Apr 14, 2020 at 19:38
  • $\begingroup$ @MartinR If you embellished that (e.g., “If, for example, $D=(c,a)$ for some $a$, then by necessity $\lim\limits_{x\to c}f(x)$ is a one-sided limit, and the criterion applies”) and posted it as an answer, then I would give you +25 for it $\endgroup$ Apr 14, 2020 at 20:55

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The left (resp. right) limit of $f : D \to \Bbb R$ at $c$ is the (usual) limit of the function $f$ restricted to $D \cap (-\infty, c)$ (resp. $D \cap (c, \infty)$).

Therefore, by setting $D_+ = D \cap (c, \infty)$ and applying your criterion to $f_+ = \left.f\right|_{D_+}$ we get the following equivalence:

Let $f:D\to\Bbb R$ be a function and $c$ be an accumulation point of $D \cap (c, \infty)$. Then the following are equivalent:

  • (a) $f$ does not have a right limit at $c$.
  • (b) There exists a sequence $(s_n)$ in $D$ with each $s_n > c$ such that $(s_n)$ converges to $c$, but $f(s_n)$ is not convergent in $\Bbb R$.

(and similarly for the left limit.)

Applied to your example, $\lim_{x\to0^+}\cos(1/x)$ does not exist because $s_n = 1/(n \pi)$ is a sequence in $(0, \infty)$ with $s_n \to 0$, but $\cos(1/s_n) = (-1)^n$ is not convergent.

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  • $\begingroup$ In (b) of the rephrasing, shouldn’t it be $D\cap(c,\infty)$? $\endgroup$ Apr 15, 2020 at 19:19
  • $\begingroup$ @gen-zreadytoperish: “each $s_n > c$” implies that, doesn't it? $\endgroup$
    – Martin R
    Apr 15, 2020 at 19:20
  • $\begingroup$ I totally missed that—you are entirely correct $\endgroup$ Apr 15, 2020 at 19:21

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