Given a compact group $G$ acting freely on a manifold $X$, is there a "nice" way to describe the tangent bundle of the quotient $X/G$ (when it is a manifold)?
In the case the group $G$ is finite, or more generally when its action is properly discontinuous, the projection $p : X \to X/G$ is a local diffeomorphism, and therefore the tangent space $T_xX$ is isomorphic to $T_{p(x)}(X/G)$ via $d_xp$. In fact, I can prove that $T(X/G) \simeq (TX)/G$, for a suitable action of $G$ on $TX$.
My question here is motivated by trying to understand the tangent space of $\mathbb CP^n$. It can be seen as $S^{2n+1}/U(1)$, but here, the action of $U(1)$ is not properly discontinuous, and everything breaks down. $U(1)$ acts on $TS^{2n+1} \simeq \{ (x,v) : x,v \in \mathbb{C}^{n+1} \|x\| = 1, x \bot v \}$ (orthogonality is for the real inner product on $\mathbb{R}^{2n+2} = \mathbb C^{n+1}$) by multiplication on both factors. The quotient is indeed a vector bundle on $\mathbb CP^n$, but it's not the tangent bundle: it doesn't even have the correct dimension.
More specifically, I'm trying to prove that for a complex line $D \subset \mathbb C^{n+1}$, the tangent space of $\mathbb CP^n$ at $D$ is isomorphic to $\mathrm{Hom}(D, D^\bot)$. This is "proven" in "The Topology of Fiber Bundles: Lecture Notes" by Ralph L. Cohen (found online) in section 2.2, but the author merely says that the result is "proved in the same way" as in the real case; but in the real case, $\{\pm 1\}$ acts properly discontinuously on the sphere, and the projection is a local diffeomorphism. This isn't true in the complex case.