I have a sequence defined as $u_{n+1}=f(u_n)=(u_n^2+3)/4$, and with $u_0\geq0$. I am asked to determine what are the possible limits of $u_n$ by studying $f(x)$ and the sign of $f(x)-x$.
$$
\begin{array}{c|ccccccccc}
x & 0 & & 1 & & 2& & 3 & & \infty\\\hline
f'(x) & & & & & +& & & &\\\hline
f(x) &3/4 & & & &\nearrow& & & & \infty\\\hline
s\left(f(x)-x\right)&& + & | & & - & & | & + &
\end{array}
$$
Suppose $0\leq u_0\leq1$, then $\frac{3}{4}\leq \frac{u_0^2+3}{4}=u_1\leq1$, which means that $u_n$ will always stay in $[0, 1]$.
The only thing I am sure of is that $\lim_{n\to\infty}u_n\leq1$, but I don't see how I can determine a possible limit other than $1$ here.
Suppose $1\leq u_0\leq 3$, then $1\leq u_1\leq3$, which means that $u_n$ will always stay in $[1, 3]$.
Since $f(x)-x\leq0$, and because of the sentence above, I am tempted to say that $u_n$ will go backwards until it reaches $1$, but I also don't see how I can put this mathematically, like the first case.
Suppose $3\leq u_0\leq k$, then $3\leq u_1\leq\frac{k^2+3}{4}$. Using the sign of $f(x)-x$, I know that $k\leq\frac{k^2+3}{4}$, and $u_0\leq u_1$. The upper bound keeps getting bigger, and the difference in two consecutive terms of the sequence also does, so there is no limit.
I would gladly accept any help for the first two parts, and a verification for the last one. Thank you very much!