I'm referring (also for notations and terminology) to P. Johnstone, Sketches of an Elephant. A Topos Theory Compendium. Volume I. Clarendon Press. Oxford, 2002. The Lemma can be found at page 540. I can't manage to explicitly prove the following claim that Johnstone makes in his proof of the lemma:
Further, the compatibility of the $s_{ij}$ ensures that $(s_{i}\vert\ i\in I)$ is a compatible family relative to the $f_{i}$.
Here the $s_{ij}$ form a compatibile family for the compositions $(f_{i}h_{ij}\vert\ i\in I,\ j\in J_{i})$. If one fixes $i$, $(s_{ij}\vert\ j\in J_{i})$ trivially is a compatible family for the family $(h_{ij}\vert j\in J_{i})$ and since $A$ satisfies the sheaf axiom for all the families of the $h_{ij}$, there's a unique $s_{i}\in A(U_{i})$ such that $A(h_{ij})(s_{i})=s_{ij}$ for all $j\in J_{i}$. The problem now is the following: by the very definition of compatible family, I need to show that for each object $M$ of $C$ and for each couple of arrows in $C$, $p\colon M\rightarrow U_{i}$ and $q\colon M\rightarrow U_{\overline{i}}$ such that $f_{i}p=f_{\overline{i}}q$ (for some $i,\overline{i}\in I$), one has $A(p)(s_{i})=A(q)(s_{\overline{i}})$. I suppose I should work with the definition of the $s_{i}$ and the compatibility of $s_{ij}$ as suggested by the author, but I don't know how to do it, basically since there is no reason for p or q to factorize through some $h_{ij}\colon U_{ij}\rightarrow U_{i}$ or some $h_{\overline{i}\overline{j}}\colon U_{\overline{i}\overline{j}}\rightarrow U_{\overline{i}}$. So, how do I use compatibility of $s_{ij}$?
Thanks a lot.