I read the following statement in an article:
Let $G$ be a finite abelian group. Then $G$ can be decomposed into a direct product of abelian $p$-groups i.e. $G\cong G_1 \times G_2 \times ... \times G_k$. From here it follows that $\operatorname{Aut}(G)\cong \operatorname{Aut}(G_1) \times \operatorname{Aut}(G_2)\times ... \operatorname{Aut}(G_k)$.
There are a couple of things which I do not understand. The fact that $G$ can be decomposed into a direct product of abelian $p$-groups seems all right to me from the classification theorem of finite abelian groups. But the next part regarding the automorphism group seems to assume that the orders of $G_1, G_2,... G_k$ are all relatively prime. I don't understand why this is the case.
EDIT: After the answers I received I think I managed to understand how this works. These $G_i$'s are just the Sylow subgroups as someone pointed out and their orders are obviously relatively prime. I believe that this is used in proving the classification theorem of finite abelian groups, but we may as well just use the part I quoted in order to get a nice form for $\operatorname{Aut}(G)$.