I want to prove the following theorem:
Let $q$ be a real number such that $0 ≤ q < 1$. Let $(x_n)$ be a bounded sequence and let $(y_n)$ be the sequence defined by $∀n ∈ \mathbb{N}, y_n = x_n − qx_{n+1}$. If $y_n$ converges to $0$, then $x_n$ converges to $0$.
I can show that when $\lim x_n$ exists, $(x_n)\rightarrow 0$, but my trouble is showing that $\lim x_n$ in fact exists. My strategy is to show that $\limsup x_n = \liminf x_n$ so that I may conclude that $\lim x_n$ exists. Of course, when $q=0$, the result is immediate.
Here's what I have so far, when $0<q<1$,
\begin{align*} \limsup y_n & = \limsup(x_n-qx_{n+1})\\ & \leq \limsup(x_n) + \limsup(-(qx_{n+1})\\ & = \limsup(x_n) -\liminf(qx_{n+1})\\ & = \limsup(x_n) - q\liminf(x_{n+1})\\ & = \limsup(x_n) - q\liminf(x_n), \end{align*}
and by similar reasoning I've been able to show
\begin{align*} \liminf y_n \geq \liminf x_n -q\limsup x_n. \end{align*}
You can assume that each line follows from a result I proved in a previous problem. Given what I have so far, is there a way to reach $\limsup x_n \leq \liminf x_n$ so that I may conclude $\limsup x_n = \liminf x_n$? What am I missing?
I want to use the fact that $y_n$ converges to $0$, but whenever I try using this fact with my inequalities, I just arrive at what we already know: $\liminf x_n \leq \limsup x_n$.