I got stuck with a proof from the text by Stein and Shakarchi. Please help me out. Thank you so much. Please find the picture below and note the words marked with red.
Q1: Why $\nu(F)\leq\sum_{j=1}^{\infty}\nu(E_j)$? If $\nu$ were induced by the exterior measure, the inequality would readily hold. However, I don't see any evidence that leads to the assumption.
Q2: Why $\nu(E-F)\leq\mu(E-F)$? Here's my calculation.
\begin{align*} \mu(E-F)-\nu(E-F)&=\mu(E)-\mu(F)-( \nu(E)-\nu(F) )\\ &=\nu(F)-\mu(F)\\ &\leq 0 \end{align*}
Did you see that? I got an inequality that goes in the other direction! What's wrong with me? I feel very confused. Please give me a hand.