Let $X$ be a topological space with subsets $A \subseteq S \subseteq X$ and $B \subseteq T \subseteq X$ such that $S=\operatorname{cl}_S(A), T = \operatorname{cl}_T(B)$. Prove that $\operatorname{cl}_{S\cup T}(A \cup B) = S \cup T$.
Note: all subsets have subspace topologies.
Attempt: Let $x \in S \cup T$. WLOG, $x \in S$. Thus since $S = \operatorname{cl}_S(A)$, we know that $V \cap A \neq \emptyset$ for all (open) neighborhoods $V$ of $x$ in $S$.
Suppose to the contrary there is a neighborhood $W$ of $x$ in $S \cup T$ with $W \cap (A \cup B) = \emptyset$. Then, by possibly shrinking $W$, we may assume that $W$ is open in $S \cup T$. This means that $W = (S \cup T) \cap G = (S \cap G) \cup(T \cap G)$ for some subset $G$ open in $X$. Now, also $W \cap A = \emptyset$ and thus $(S \cap G) \cap A= \emptyset$. But $S \cap G$ is open in $S$ and contains $x$. Thus $S \cap G$ is a neighborhood of $x$ in $S$, contradicting what we wrote at the beginning of the proof.
Thus, every neighborhood $W$ of $x$ in $S \cup T$ has $W \cap (A \cup B) \neq \emptyset$ and it follows that $x \in \operatorname{cl}_{S \cup T}(A \cap B)$.
Is this correct?